silly question?

by truthseeker789 9 Replies latest jw friends

  • truthseeker789

    JW's teach that Jesus began ruling from heaven 'invisibly' in 1914. if no one knows the day or the hour the son of man will arrive - then how is it justified that Jesus began his 'invisible ruling' from heaven in 1914? doesn't that mean he's already arrived? *confused*

  • undercover

    Well, you see...Jesus "comes" in more than one way. There's his invisible presence since 1914, then there'll be the time when he "comes" to lead the war on the wicked. That's the "coming" that we supposedly don't know when will happen.

    It's all right there in your Bible WT publications...

    and I managed to type this post without any Mary Magdalene jokes...

  • BizzyBee

    Welcome truthseeker.

    Not a silly question at all. A silly premise.

  • Undecided

    The real question that I need answering was he here the first time as a son of God? If he was the primary spirt son of God in heaven did God have to kill him for it to be possible to transfer him as a sperm to Mary's egg? How could he be the son of David if God impregnated Mary? Maybe he froze David's sperm and used it, nope, then he wouldn't have been God's perfect son of man, since he had to be equal to Adam as a sacrifice. It all seems like a bunch of BS to me.

    Ken P.

  • Gopher

    From what I remember, the WTS has stated that first-century Jews would have been able to know the timing of the FIRST coming of Jesus (about 29CE, they say) based on Daniel's '70 weeks-of-years' prophecy. He was supposed to arrive after the passing of 69 weeks ( = 483 years) after the restoration of the temple in Jerusalem.

    So, the argument goes, if you could pinpoint the year of the first coming, you can also pinpoint the year of the second coming using another prophecy of Daniel, this time the 'seven times' prophecy.

    The main flaw of that argument is that their calculated 1914CE date is based on Jerusalem's fall actually being in 607BCE, which is off by about 20 years.

  • smellsgood

    "JW's teach that Jesus began ruling from heaven 'invisibly' in 1914. if no one knows the day or the hour the son of man will arrive - then how is it justified that Jesus began his 'invisible ruling' from heaven in 1914? doesn't that mean he's already arrived? *confused*"
    Well, I don't really see what there is to be confused about. You see, first He arrived in 1874, and 1914 was to be the year that ended everything. Then, they discovered with the progressive nature of truth (ie, when nothing you say comes to fruition, you scramble and retroactively fit a "fulfillment" of said prophecy.) that yes, 1914 wasn't the date for the end of the world. Just for Christ's "parousia" or "presence"....the "invisible setting up of His kingdom in the Heavens".....alright? Then He sat down with his spectacles and dusty tombs of the worlds religions, did a good three four years of review, and "invisibly" chose the "visible" watchtower earthlings as being brought out of "babylon the Great" aka, cleansed of Christendoms demons.
    So, they discovered the truth of the "parousia" of Christ,,,,selecting the "presence" not having to be visible. Works ever so well for them. He's an invisible power pawn.
    Yes, the Bible says that "as lightning shine from the east even unto the west, so shall the coming of the Son of Man be." "He will come with great power and glory, and EVERY EYE SHALL SEE HIM"
    But it would be such an exegesis made headache (and no they DON'T have an excedrin for that) for them to consider these verses in light of the convenience an invisible Christ affords them. Why would they want to make things harder for themselves?

    Coincidentally, 19.14 buys you practically invisible gas fumes today...



  • anewme

    Excuse me, but here's another silly question: Why are the JWs advertising at the bottom of our posts here?
    The website is a link to Kingdom Halls in my state, complete with addresses and telephone numbers.


  • anewme

    Sorry Truthseeker, what I just did could be considered a highjacking of your sincere question.
    It is not a silly question at all and very much at the heart of why many deny the JWs as having the truth.

    But I cannot defend the JW reasoning behind why they say 1914 is the year Jesus returned.
    Lots of old dates and counting days of weeks and years that the apostles in all their writing never dealt with, but miraculously a small obscure group of Bible Students also studying pyramidology at the time saw in the scriptures the key to understanding these deep kept secrets.

    The scriptures say every eye will see the son of man coming on the clouds of heaven and the angels with him. World War I doesnt look like a coronation ceremony to me.

    Oh but that was a trick of Satan!! To throw you off! Dont be fooled! Jesus really did come in 1914, but Satan created a chaos to divert attention!

    One lie to cover another?
    It just gets wilder and crazier from there.

  • parakeet

    In the now-sputtering-light "truth" I was taught more than 30 years ago, believers knew Jesus had arrived invisibly in the heavens because he tossed Satan out, and Satan was so ticked off at being cast down to earth that he stirred up all manner of trouble here, WWI, earthquakes, ear mites, etc. The turbulent times were supposed to be the indicator that Jesus had assumed his heavenly throne. Don't know if this is correct; long-term memory loss is getting worse!

  • Calliope

    i think Smellsgood answers the question best.

    and welcome to you both!


Share this