Why did the 1st century GB do things unanimously and the current GB only needs a 2/3 vote.
Why wasn’t the 1/3 vote disfellowshiped by the 2/3 vote?and for observance of portions of the law.
I would imagine that there are some laws that will always apply, no matter how many times Jesus dies, and apply forever. Many of the laws would not apply simply due to progress. Example: we are not required by Mosaic Law to go outside X amount of yards from our dwelling dig a hole and s*%t in it. We have toilets now.However, many of the laws would not change regardless of how advanced society becomes. Common sense.Which leads to why the GB today could not possibly be a continuation of the GB of yesteryear. They do not posses common sense.The GB of yesteryear perhaps had common sense, but had no knowlege of what a germ was. I give up, blondie - it must be Russell's last will where I read it. It is in a 1917 WT I have.
oldhippie,I could be wrong but I thought it wasn't until Russell decided to elect Rutherford as head honcho and then after that they began to form a GB? I'm not possitive about that, that is just what I have always thought. Never did any reasearch on that subject.plum